Free Sample Questions

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1. When it comes to Controlling for Threats to Internal Validity, there is a certain difference between RANDOM ASSIGNMENT AND RANDOM SELECTION. From your knowledge about this topic, in what does it consist?
A. assignment is how you choose people for the study
B. selection is what group they go in
C. selection is how you choose people for the study and assignment is what group they go in
D. selection- adds additional experimental groups, while assignment identifying subjects who are similar on the EV and dividing between groups

Answer: C
Explanation: Statement C is correct because selection is how you choose people for the study and assignment is what group they go in.

2. There are certain ways to increase external validity as well. From your knowledge about this ways, to what does the CLUSTER SAMPLING refer to?
A. ensures the sample is representative of the population
B. ensures proportional representation
C. sampling unit is a naturally occurring group
D. subjects and/or experimenter do no know purpose or which group they are in

Answer: C
Explanation: CLUSTER SAMPLING -sampling unit is a naturally occurring group.

3. There are specific research designs and strategies used to gain the desired information. From your knowledge about the research designs and strategies, how does the CORRELATIONAL RESEARCH work?
A. investigators randomly assigns subjects to different groups and they receive different levels of a manipulated variable
B. involves the use of intact groups
C. does not have any internal validity; can’t infer causal relationship
D. assessing variables as a function of time

Answer: C
Explanation: CORRELATIONAL RESEARCH→ no manipulation of research and does not have any internal validity; can’t infer causal relationship

4. During a Developmental Research, the variables are assessed as a function of time. How does the cross-sectional design works?
A. some people are studied over a long period of time
B. different group divided by age are assessed at the same time
C. combines longitudinal and cross-sequential design
D. representative samples of different ages are assessed multiple times

Answer: B
Explanation: cross-sectional design→ different group divided by age are assessed at the same time

5. There are specific research designs and strategies used to gain the desired information. From your knowledge about the research designs and strategies, in which case is the MULTIPLE BASELINE DESIGN used?
A. when reversal is not possible
B. when assignment is not possible
C. when selection is not possible
D. when there are not enough data available

Answer: A
Explanation: The Multiple Baseline Design is used when reversal is not possible

6. When a qualitative research is done, the theory is developed from the data, not before and helps refine hypotheses. From your knowledge about this type of research, which one out of the following statements about CASE STUDIES can not be correct?
A. Case studies are used for attitude measurement, preferences, & satisfaction
B. Case studies are based on the assumption that the case can be generalized
C. Case studies are most useful as pilot study to identify variables that can be studies in other ways
D. Case studies are the a detailed examination of a single case

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is incorrect because surveys are used for attitude measurement, preferences, & satisfaction, not case studies.

7. The STATISTICS are a method of measuring variables and organizing and analyzing data statistical method can be descriptive or inferential and have a scale of measurement. From your knowledge about statistics measurement, what is the RATIO DATA?
A. Ratio Data is scaled and at equal distances but no absolute zero
B. Ratio Data orders the amount of variable, but no info about how much
C. Ratio Data is an interval data with an absolute zero
D. Ratio Data divides variables into unordered categories

Answer: C
Explanation: RATIO DATA→ interval data with an absolute zero and only data that you can do multiplication/division with is used

8. The Frequency Distribution provides a summary of a set of data and indicates the number of cases that fall at a given score within a given range. From your knowledge about this topic, which statement out of the following ones is about the SKEWED DISTRIBUTION?
A. It is commonly called the bell-shaped curve
B. It is symmetrical (half falls above the mean, half below)
C. It has asymmetrical frequency distributions
D. It is used most common with a large number of data points

Answer: C
Explanation: Statement C refers to SKEWED DISTRIBUTION because it has asymmetrical frequency distributions.

9. There are three ways to measure the Central Tendency: the Mean, the Median and the Mode. From your knowledge about them, what is the mode?
A. less sensitive to extreme scores than the mean
B. more useful for skewed distributions
C. sensitive to extreme values and highly skewed distributions
D. the most frequently occurring number

Answer: D
Explanation: THE MODE -the most frequently occurring number and can be multimodal or bimodal as well

10. Transformed scores increase the interpretability of raw scores and allow comparison to the rest of the distribution. From your knowledge about Transformed Scores, which statement is not about the Z SCOREs?
A. raw scores stated in SD terms
B. score minus the mean divided by the SD
C. permits comparisons across different measures and tests
D. tells you how many SDs away from the mean a score is

Answer: D
Explanation: Statement D is not about the Z Scores, it is about T scores.

11. The Standard Error of the Mean is the expected error of a given sample mean. Which statement about it out of the following ones is incorrect?
A. It is the extent to which a sample mean can be expected to deviate for the corresponding population mean
B. The score can be expected to deviate + - SeMEAN points from the pop mean
C. The score increases as N decreases
D. We know that one mean is greater or less than another mean

Answer: Statement C is incorrect because the score decreases as N increases

12. When it comes to STATISTICAL DECISION-MAKING, rejecting a false null is the goal of most researches. From your knowledge about TYPE I ERROR, which statement out of the following ones is about it?
A. probability of making an Alpha Level error
B. the level of significance is set by the researcher at .01 or .05
C. graphically→ white is retention area and black is rejected area
D. null hypothesis is rejected, but it is true

Answer: D
Explanation: TYPE I ERROR→ null hypothesis is rejected, but it is true

13. There are several differences between Parametric and Nonparametric Statistical Tests, for ex. Nonparametric Statistical Tests are less powerful than parametric tests. From your knowledge about the parametric tests, which statement can not be correct?
A. They are used for ordinal and nominal data
B. They are based on normal distribution
C. They are based on homogeneity of variance
D. They are based on Independence of Observations

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is the matching answer because parametric tests are used for interval and ratio data, not for ordinal and nominal data.

14. Parametric Tests are used when data is interval or ration. There are 3 types of T-tests; from your knowledge about T-tests, for what is the t-test for Independent Samples used?
A. It compares to means from unrelated samples
B. It compares that sample mean to a known population mean
C. It compares 2 means from related samples
D. It is used for Matched samples, pre- and post- tests

Answer: A
Explanation: t-test for Independent Samples compares to means from unrelated samples.

15. Parametric Tests are used when data is interval or ration. When is it used the ONE-WAY ANOVA?
A. used when there is 1 IV and means of more than 2 groups
B. used when there is 2 IV and means of more than 4 groups
C. used when there is 3 IV and means of more than 5 groups
D. used when there is 4 IV and means of more than 6 groups

Answer: A
Explanation: ONE-WAY ANOVA -used when there is 1 IV and means of more than 2 groups.

16. The POST-HOC TESTS FOR THE ANOVA is making pairwise comparisons between means. Which test is the most conservative and provides more protection against Type I errors?
A. FACTORIAL ANOVA
B. MANOVA
C. THE SCHEFFE TEST
D. THE SCHIFFER TEST

Answer: C
Explanation: The Scheffe test is most conservative and provides more protection against Type I errors (increases Type II likelihood)

17. There are different forms of the ANOVA (FACTORIAL ANOVA, MANOVA, ANCOVA etc). When is the ACOVA form used?
A. when there are 2 or more IVs
B. when study has 2 or more DVs
C. when all subjects receive all levels of the IV
D. used to adjust DV scores to control for the effects of an EV

Answer: D
Explanation: ANCOVA→ used to adjust DV scores to control for the effects of an EV

18. The FACTORIAL ANOVA is used when study involves more than 1 IV. Which is the INTERACTION EFFECT of the Factorial Anova?
A. effect of an IV at diff levels of the other IVs
B. effect of 1 IV by itself
C. effect of more IV by themselves
D. effect of an IV at the same levels of the other IVs

Answer: A
Explanation: INTERACTION EFFECT→ effect of an IV at diff levels of the other IVs

19. Non- Parametric Tests are used when a study involves nominal or ordinal data or when assumptions of a parametric test are severely violated. When are the CHI-SQUARE TESTS used?
A. used if research includes nominal (categorical) data
B. used for rank-ordered data with 2 IVs
C. when 2 correlated groups are being compared using rank-ordered data
D. used for an analysis of variance for rank-ordered data

Answer: A
Explanation: CHI-SQUARE TEST is used if research includes nominal (categorical) data (ex. Survey responses, political party)

 

20. Behaviorist views have been criticized by other approaches for a number of reasons. Ethologists argued that the behaviorists ignored innate, built-in biases in learning due to evolution, but also disagreed with:

A. the use of the animals in laboratory experiments
B. the use of the humans in laboratory experiments
C. the use of the trial-and-error system
D. the use of the operant conditioning principle

Answer: A
Explanation: The ethologists were saying that there is a biologically qualitative difference between humans and other animals and that the experiments only demonstrate artificial, not natural learning. Also, the cognitive psychologists think that behaviorism ignores important mental processes involved

21. As a child, Fara’s responsibilities were to help her mother in the kitchen while her brother and father mowed the lawn. She was expected to do the housework like her mother while her brother did yard work like their father. What part of Feminist Therapy addresses these issues?
a. Self In Relation
b. Feminist Object Relations
c. Empowerment Therapy
d. Household Responsibilities
Answer: B
Explanation: FEMINIST OBJECT-RELATIONS
-gendered division of labor reflected in family roles
-girls taught to attach to moms, boys taught to separate
-parenting should make men and women equally responsible for child-rearing

22. The most common treatment for ADHD is drug treatment using CNS stimulants. In relation to treatment for ADHD which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A limitation of stimulant therapy is that not all children improve.
B. For reducing activity levels a higher dose of the stimulant is required.
C. Improvements may only be short-lived following treatment.
D. A lower dose of the treatment has the effect of improving social behaviors.

Answer: D
Explanation: Statement D is incorrect; a lower dose of the treatment is given for improving attention.

23. Conduct Disorder is characterized by a chronic pattern of violation of social order in multiple settings where society’s rules and norms are constantly defied. From your knowledge of Conduct Disorder which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Conduct Disorder can be child onset or adolescent onset.
B. Child onset is worse being more aggressive and antisocial.
C. Conduct Disorder not linked to biological factors.
D. There has to be more than three signs of the disorder, such as aggression or theft for at least twelve months for Conduct Disorder to be diagnosed.

Answer: C
Explanation: Statement C is incorrect; Conduct Disorder is linked to biological factors as well as environmental and family factors.

24. Amnesic Disorders describe conditions where there is memory impairment with no other significant cognitive impairments. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Amnesic Disorders?
A. These disorders cause a loss of recall of learned information = anterograde amnesia.
B. Someone with condition confabulates to fill in gaps in the memory.
C. These disorders can be caused by any pathological process that affects brain areas associated with memory.
D. Amnesic disorders can be associated with hypnotics and sedatives

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; “a loss of recall of learned information” is known as retrograde amnesia.

25. The notion of Defense Mechanisms is crucial to understanding Freudian psychoanalysis. According to this understanding of human behavior conflict is the basic dynamic of personality and this conflict exists between the Id, Ego, Superego and reality. Defense Mechanisms are employed by the Ego to relieve pressures of drives; they are unconscious and they operate to avoid activating anxiety. Twelve DMs have been identified; in the following parts, identify the correct DM from the definition given.
External objects are all good or all bad.
A. Projection identification.
B. Splitting.
C. Displacement.
D. Denial.

Answer: B
Explanation: “Splitting” matches the definition given.

26. Existential and Humanistic therapies stress individuality and the capacity for growth. From your knowledge of Rogers’s Client- Centered Therapy which of the following terms is incorrectly defined?
A. Self-actualizing tendency = capacity for constructive change and self-understanding.
B. Goal = self actualization and decrease incongruence.
C. Incongruence = conflict between self-concept and experiences.
D. Congruence = honest connection between words and action.
E. Empathy = truly caring and accepting the client.

Answer: E
Explanation: The correct definition for Empathy is to “view world as the client does to encourage change”.


27. Berne’s Transactional Analysis aimed to simplify the client’s understanding of maladaptive behavior. Which of these technical terms taken from Berne’s Transactional Analysis is incorrectly defined?
A. Ego states = Child, parent, adult – one is always activated.
B. Strokes = Recognition from others. How transactions take place – either positive or negative.
C. Games = Orderly series of ulterior transactions that is repeated over time and results in bad feelings.
D. Transactions = Communications between the ego states.
E. Life positions = A person’s life plan, reflects pattern of strokes – developed early through interactions with parents.

Answer: E
Explanation: The definition provided for the term “Life Positions” actually matched the technical term “Scripts” and was therefore incorrect.

28. In Crisis Intervention the “Crisis” is defined in terms of when normal coping is insufficient. The Therapist is usually supportive and active. The Intervention is based on a number of assumptions; which of the following is not one of them?
A. People are strong, adaptable, resilient and capable of change.
B. Confronting the experiences of the past is as important as the present and future.
C. Work toward change in coping, not a permanent cure.
D. Small interventions lead to larger systemic changes.
E. Goal to eliminate symptoms in a short time.

Answer: B
Explanation: Statement B is incorrect; it should read, “The present and future are more important than the past”.


29. Solution-Focused Therapy is a form of brief therapy, focused on solutions not root causes based on the assumption that the clients want to change. The goal of this therapy is to move the client to solution orientation. Solution-Focused Therapy uses five techniques; which of the following is not one of them?
A. Exception Questioning.
B. Narratives/Language Games.
C. Skeleton Keys.
D. Circular Questioning.
E. Formula Tasks.

Answer: D
Explanation: “Circular Questioning” is not one of the five techniques used; the fifth technique is Miracle Question.


30. The use of Personality Inventories is one of the most important forms of Psychological testing. Within this area the MMPI is the most widely used clinical personality test used on people aged eighteen and over; the MMPI –A test being used for those aged between fourteen and eighteen. The MMPI was developed to distinguish clinical illness from normal individuals and its most significant feature is that it is empirically criterion keyed. Though revised in 1990 the clinical scales were not changed. There are ten points on the MMPI Clinical Scales; identify the correct descriptor from the definition provided.
Helplessness and hopelessness.
A. Hypochondriasis.
B. Hypomania.
C. Depression.
D. Paranoia.

Answer: C
Explanation: “Depression” matches the descriptor provided.

31. One of the key areas of debate in the early stages of Developmental Psychology was the so called, Nature vs. Nurture debate. Academics agreed that there was interaction between these two factors but there was wide disagreement concerning the degree of interaction. Which of the following terms, that relate to either genetic or environmentally caused changes, describes the differences in timing of physical changes that are found in children belonging to different cohorts?

A. Sensitive period.
B. Secular trends.
C. Canalization?
D. Critical period.

Answer: B
Explanation: “Secular Trends” is the term that matches the description.

32. Chromosomal anomalies can cause a variety of serious disorders. Which of the following disorders due to chromosomal anomalies is characterized by moderate MR, facial deformities and rapid speech?
A. Fragile X Syndrome.
B. Down Syndrome.
C. Turners Syndrome.
D. Klinefelter Syndrome.
E. Palmers Syndrome
Answer: A
Explanation: “Fragile X Syndrome” is characterized by the symptoms described in the question.

33. In studies in Communication various gender differences have been observed. With relation to gender differences in communication, which of the following is not a likely characteristic of women’s speech?
A. Interrupting for rapport-building reasons.
B. Hesitations.
C. Talking less than men overall.
D. Asking rhetorical questions.

Answer: E
Explanation: According to studies into gender differences in Communication the cogent use of argument is not a likely characteristic in women’s speech.

34. Divorce has been shown to have the potential to be very detrimental to childhood development. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the effects of divorce on children?
A. Girls experience more internalizing behaviors and sleeper effects.
B. Living with the same sex parent after divorce is better – especially for boys.
C. Preschool children have the most negative outcomes (especially ST).
D. LT consequences are worse for older children.
E. Girls have more ST and LT consequences than boys.

Answer: E
Explanation: Statement E is incorrect; it is boys that have more ST and LT consequences than girls following their parents being divorced.

35. The issue of maternal employment and the use of daycare raise some interesting questions in terms of possible negative effects on the children as they grow up. Much research has been carried out on this subject. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. High quality daycare has no negative effects on children’s development.
B. Maternal employment can result in reduced life satisfaction, even if both parents want it.
C. Maternal employment leads to less gender-stereotyping.
D. High quality daycare can have benefits for children in terms of developing intelligence and social skills.
E. Maternal employment can have negative effects if the mother works more than 40 hours a week.

Answer: B
Explanation: Statement B is incorrect; the correct statement is, “Maternal employment can result in higher life satisfaction I both parents want it”.

36. Studies into the etiology of Schizophrenia indicated a genetic predisposition to the condition but other factors are involved. From your knowledge of the subject identify which of the following statements is incorrect.
A. Excess dopamine or sensitivity to dopamine could be a contributory factor.
B. White patients are more symptomatic.
C. Remission from the condition in the Third World is 65%.
D. A lower rate of Schizophrenia diagnosed among Africa Americans.

Answer: D
Explanation: Statement D is incorrect; a higher rate of Schizophrenia is diagnosed among African Americans.

37. Harold has been prescribed with Alzheimer’s. Symptoms associated with this disease are
1. Gradual decline in memory, learning
2. Paranoid and stickler for good hygiene
3. Inappropriate social behavior
4. Unaffected communication
5. Decline in attention, & judgment

A. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
B. 1, 3 and 5
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, and 5
E. 1 and 5

Answer B
Explanation: Symptoms of Alzheimer’s are: Gradual decline in memory, learning, attention, & judgment.
Confusion as to time & place.
Difficulties in communicating & finding the right words.
Decline in personal hygiene & self-care skills inappropriate social behavior.

38. In comparing the views assumptions and practices of Cognitive Therapy to psychoanalysis, which of the following is true?
I. Both assume behavior is influenced by beliefs of which we may be unaware.
II. Ct is is unstructured and long-term.
III. In CT the therapist actively collaborates with the patient.
IV. CT has minimal focus on childhood or developmental issues except in terms of assessment

A. I , II, and III
B. II , III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I and III
E. I , III and IV

Answer E

Explanation:
CT Compared to Psychoanalysis
1. Both assume behavior is influenced by beliefs of which we may be unaware CT focuses on linkages among symptoms, conscious beliefs and current experiences; little concern with unconscious feelings or repressed emotions as in psychoanalysis
2. CT has minimal focus on childhood or developmental issues except in terms of assessment or when addressing core beliefs CT is highly structured and generally short term (12-16 weeks) whereas psychoanalysis is unstructured and long-term In CT the therapist actively collaborates with the patient

39. If cognitive therapy is compared to therapy through meditation which of the following facts will be found to be true?
I. Ct shows reduced likelihood of continuing gains when treatment is discontinued
II. Studies show CT to be equivalent to psychotropic medications for depression bulimia and some anxiety disorders.
III. the combination of the two approaches is superior to either used in isolation

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II only
D. III only’
E. II and III

Answer E
Explanation: Studies generally show CT to be equivalent to psychotropic medications for depression, bulimia, and some anxiety disorders General research suggests the combination of the two approaches is superior to either used in isolation CT shows longer efficacy (less relapse) and increased likelihood of continuing gains when treatment is discontinued.

40. The Self-Concept is the individual’s belief about their own attributes. What can happen according to the OVERJUSTIFICATION HYPOTHESIS?
A. rewarding people for an enjoyable activity can undermine their interest
B. to experience an emotion, a person must first experience physiological arousal, then a cognitive interpretation of that arousal
C. when internal cues are vague, people infer by observing their behavior and the situational context
D. not rewarding people for an enjoyable activity can undermine their interest

Answer: A
Explanation: OVERJUSTIFICATION HYPOTHESIS: -rewarding people for an enjoyable activity can undermine their interest so intrinsic motivation loses its power.

41. Frustration always leads to aggression/aggression always predicated by frustration. What does the CATHARSIS THEORY states in this issue, but is unsupported by research?
A. aggressive act reduces inclination to engages in other aggressive acts
B. high temperature leads to more aggression
C. feelings of anonymity lead to more uncharacteristic violence
D. The assigned roles effect aggressive behavior

Answer: A
Explanation: CATHARSIS THEORY: aggressive act reduces inclination to engages in other aggressive acts

42. There are several methods for estimating the test reliability, like the INTERNAL CONSISTENCY RELIABILITY for example. From your knowledge about this topic, find the correct definition of it.
A. administer 2 equivalent forms of a test to same people and correlate
B. administer test twice to same people and then correlate scores
C. correlations among individual test items
D. they are not used for an unstable trait

Answer: C
Explanation: INTERNAL CONSISTENCY RELIABILITY: correlations among individual test items

43. The INTER-SCORER RELIABILITY is used for essay tests or behavioral observation scales and usually involves a coefficient between rater’s scores. What is the Kappa Coefficient?
A. measure of agreement between 2 raters using nominal scales
B. elapsed time in which target behaviors occurs
C. recording all behaviors with narrative description
D. # of times target behavior occurs

Answer: A
Explanation: KAPPA COEFFICIENT→ measure of agreement between 2 raters using nominal scales

44. The STANDARD SCORES express raw score distance from mean by SD and considered the most satisfactory type of NR score. Which statement out of the following ones is about T-scores?
A. Shows how many standard deviations a score is above or below the mean: a score of +1.0 means it’s 1 SD above the mean
B. M=50, SD=10- it is used on many psychological tests, MMPI
C. standard nine: M=5, SD=approx 2
D. M=100, SD=15 or 16

Answer: B
Explanation: T-SCORES→ M=50, SD=10 and is used on many psychological tests, MMPI.

45. The most frequent training types are occupation-specific technical training, computer related and managerial/supervision training; Needs Analysis is used for determining if and what kind of training is necessary. Which component out of the following ones is not of the Need Analysis?
A. organization analysis
B. task analysis
C. person analysis
D. program design
Answer: D
Explanation: Statement D is incorrect because the program design is a basic step in training program development.

46. HOUSE’S PATH-GOAL THEORY OF LEADERSHIP predicts that subordinate satisfaction and motivation are maximized when they believe the leader is helping. How is the Instrumental leadership style?
A. establishes supportive relationships with subordinates
B. includes subordinates in decision-making
C. provides specific guidelines and clear rules and procedures
D. sets challenging goals and encourage higher levels of performance

Answer: C
Explanation: Instrumental (Directive) style → provides specific guidelines and clear rules and procedures

47. According to HERSEY and BLANCHARD’S SITUATIONAL LEADERSHIP MODEL, leader style is described in terms of task and relationship orientation and optimal style depends on job maturity and subordinates. How is it the Delegating Style?
A. high task-orientation and low relationship orientation
B. high task-orientation and high relationship orientation
C. low task orientation and high relationship orientation
D. low task orientation and low relationship orientation

Answer: D
Explanation: Delegating Style→ low task orientation and low relationship orientation

48. Motivation is a complex process involving weighing alternatives, costs, and benefits. From your knowledge about GOAL-SETTING THEORY, which one out of the following statements is incorrect?
A. goals serve 2 purposes: they are a basis for motivation and they direct behaviors
B. goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and highly difficult
C. goal attainment is maximized when frequent feedback is given
D. worker participation in goal-setting is also good

Answer: B
Explanation: goal attainment is maximized when goals are specific and

49. According to EQUITY THEORY in any work situation, people assess both their inputs and outcomes and compare the ratio to other workers and underpayment has a greater impact on worker performance than overpayment. To what does the PROCEDURAL JUSTICE refer to?
A. fairness of outcomes
B. perceptions of outcome
C. fairness of procedures
D. inconsistency of treatment
Answer: C
Explanation: PROCEDURAL JUSTICE→ fairness of procedures used to determine outcomes and includes consistency of treatment, suppression of bias, and accuracy of info.

50. CONTINGENCY CONTRACTING refers to establishing a formal, written contract that specifies target behaviors and the reinforcers and contractors. Which element out of the following ones is not one of an effective contract?
A. informative about treatment strategies and expected outcomes
B. behaviors are capable of being monitored
C. elicits participation form client
D. only minimum participation from client is required

Answer: D
Explanation: Statement D is incorrect because Contingency Contracting elicits participation form client.

51. These medicines are antipsychotics and block dopamine receptors in the brain and are a bipolar and schizophrenia treatment. From the following list of several generics, which one is not a generic of medicines used in these treatments?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Thioridazine
C. Haloperidol clozapine
D. Dissulfiram

Answer: D
Explanation: Dissulfiram is a generic for alcoholism treatment, not one for the bipolar or schizophrenia.

52. When it comes to Controlling for Threats to Internal Validity, there is a certain difference between RANDOM ASSIGNMENT AND RANDOM SELECTION. From your knowledge about this topic, in what does it consist?
A. assignment is how you choose people for the study
B. selection is what group they go in
C. selection is how you choose people for the study and assignment is what group they go in
D. selection- adds additional experimental groups, while assignment identifying subjects who are similar on the EV and dividing between groups

Answer: C
Explanation: Statement C is correct because selection is how you choose people for the study and assignment is what group they go in.

53. The External Validity refers to the the generalizability of results. In what does the INTERACTION BETWEEN SELECTION AND TREATMENT consist as an external threat for validity?
A. the effects of a given treatment would not generalize to other members of the target population
B. effects of a treatment do not generalize beyond the setting and time period of the experiment
C. pretest sensitization, increases response to treatment
D. cues in the research setting re: hypothesis

Answer: B
Explanation: INTERACTION BETWEEN HISTORY AND TREATMENT→ effects of a treatment do not generalize beyond the setting and time period of the experiment

54. When a qualitative research is done, the theory is developed from the data, not before and helps refine hypotheses. From your knowledge about this type of research, which one out of the following statements about CASE STUDIES can not be correct?
A. Case studies are used for attitude measurement, preferences, & satisfaction
B. Case studies are based on the assumption that the case can be generalized
C. Case studies are most useful as pilot study to identify variables that can be studies in other ways
D. Case studies are the a detailed examination of a single case

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is incorrect because surveys are used for attitude measurement, preferences, & satisfaction, not case studies.

55. In which type of research there is no manipulation of research done and variables are just measured, not manipulated? From your knowledge about research designs and strategies, choose the correct answer.
A. QUASI-EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH
B. TRUE EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH
C. CORRELATIONAL RESEARCH
D. DEVELOPMENTAL RESEARCH

Answer: C
Explanation: CORRELATIONAL RESEARCH→ no manipulation of research is done and variables are just measured not manipulated.

56. The STATISTICS are a method of measuring variables and organizing and analyzing data statistical method can be descriptive or inferential and have a scale of measurement. From your knowledge about statistics measurement, what is the RATIO DATA?
A. Ratio Data is scaled and at equal distances but no absolute zero
B. Ratio Data orders the amount of variable, but no info about how much
C. Ratio Data is an interval data with an absolute zero
D. Ratio Data divides variables into unordered categories

Answer: C
Explanation: RATIO DATA→ interval data with an absolute zero and only data that you can do multiplication/division with is used

57. TYPE II ERROR is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis. The Power is the probability of NOT making a Type II error and is effected by several factors. Which factor out of the following ones that have influence on the power is incorrectly defined?
A. Sample Size→ power decreases with sample size increase
B. Alpha→ power increases as alpha level increases
C. 1-tailed tests have higher power
D. as differences between populations means increase, power increases

Answer: A
Explanation: Sample Size→ power increases with sample size increase

58. There are several differences between Parametric and Nonparametric Statistical Tests, for ex. Nonparametric Statistical Tests are less powerful than parametric tests. From your knowledge about the parametric tests, which statement can not be correct?
A. They are used for ordinal and nominal data
B. They are based on normal distribution
C. They are based on homogeneity of variance
D. They are based on Independence of Observations

Answer: A
Explanation: Statement A is the matching answer because parametric tests are used for interval and ratio data, not for ordinal and nominal data.

59. Rats that were raised in an "enriched" environment with toys and social activities were not only smarter than the ones that were raised in impoverished environments, but that the improvement in performance correlated with an increase in the weight of the rats' cerebral cortex. What conclusion was made?

A. that the brain might respond to motivation with physical growth
B. that the brain might respond to cerebral exercise with physical growth
C. that the brain might not respond to "cerebral exercise" with physical growth
D. that the brain might respond to "cerebral exercise" with physical latency

ANS: B
EXPL: This conclusion was surprising to many, and gave strength to an increasingly powerful theory suggesting that all aspects of the mind - from memory, to dreams, to emotions - might have physical correlates.

60. A model of working memory has three distinct subsystems: phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad and the central executive. What is the phonological visuospatial sketchpad?

A. a system that draws upon speech resources
B. a parallel system akin to an artist's sketchbook for stimuli that cannot be verbalized, such as spatial information
C. a system responsible for supervisory attentional control and cognitive processing
D. stimulates the first neuron which stimulates the second, and so on, with branches from the second neuron synapsing with the first

ANS: B
EXPL: The visuospatial sketchpad or scratchpad (VSSP) is one of two passive slave systems in Baddeley's (1986) model of working memory. The VSSP is responsible for the manipulation and temporary storage of visual and spatial information.

61. According to Harry Stack Sullivan, which of the following cognitive experiences characterizes schizophrenic behavior:
A. Parataxic Mode: private symbols and causal connections
B. Parataxic Distortion Mode: dealing w/ other like they’re from early life
C. Prototaxic Mode: discrete, unconnected states, before language
D. Basic anxiety: feeling of helplessness/isolation in a hostile world

Answer: C
Explanation: Prototaxic Mode→ discrete, unconnected states, before language in the 1st months of life characterizes schizophrenic behavior

62. Erich Fromm states that the society prevents you from realizing true nature to be loving, creative, and productive. Which of the responses to societal demands allow a person to realize that?
A. The receptive definitely allows a person to realize its true nature, to loving, creative, productive
B. The hoarding allows a person to realize its true nature, to be loving, creative, productive
C. The marketing surely allows a person to realize its true nature, to be loving, creative, productive
D. The productive allows a person to realize its true nature, to be loving, creative, etc.

Answer: D
Explanation: The society prevents you from realizing true nature. There are 5 styles in response to societal demands. Only the productive allows you to realize your true nature.

63. The Ego Autonomous Functions have adaptive functions. The following statements relate to them. In which of the following situations is The Ego Autonomous Function defined incorrectly:
A. The Ego Autonomous Function provides opportunities for re-parenting
B. The Ego Autonomous Function is involved in resolution of conflict
C. The Ego Autonomous Function is focused on helping clients to build more adaptive defenses
D. Pathology occurs when ego loses autonomy from id.

Answer: B
Explanation: The Ego Defense Functions are involved in resolution of conflict

64. Stress Inoculation Training involves both skills training and modification of maladaptive cognitions. Which of the following steps is incorrectly defined by a young inexperienced therapist:
A. PRACTICE→ applies learning to real or imagines situations done on a gradual basis
B. SKILLS ACQUISITION→ learning relaxation, self-statements, escape routes not necessary with rehearsing them
C. COGNITION PREPARATION→ education on how faulty cognitions prevent adaptive coping
D. SKILLS ACQUISITION→ learning and rehearsing new skills relaxation, self-statements, escape routes
Answer: B
Explanation: SKILLS ACQUISITION requires rehearsing them as well

65. The TRANSTHEORETICAL MODEL OF CHANGE was originally developed to treat addictive behaviors and 5 stages people pass through in the process of change. Which stage is correctly defined?
A. PRECONTEMPLATION: intend to take action in next 6 months
B. PREPARATION: consider change in next 6 months
C. ACTION: time and effort into modifying behavior
D. MAINTENANCE: behavior change lasted at least 8 months

Answer: C
Explanation: The Action stage consists in investing time and effort into modifying behavior

66. When helping a patient to resolve ambivalence, build commitment, and reach a decision to change, which of the following basic principle is not used at Motivational Interviewing:
A. Does not support self-efficacy for change
B. Empathy through reflective listening
C. Roll with resistance
D. Avoid direct confrontation

Answer: A
Explanation: Motivational Interviewing principle is to support self-efficacy for change

67. The Systems Theory claims that a group of interaction components constitute together an entire organization. Which of the following properties of a family system is incorrectly defined:
A. EQUIFINALITY: end result is the same, no matter where you enter the system
B. WHOLENESS: whole is greater than sum of parts
C. HOMEOSTASIS→ system restores status quo when disrupted
D. POSITIVE FEEDBACK→ disrupting homeostasis by creating deviations in the status quo

Answer: B
Explanation: WHOLENESS→ every part is inter-related